OVA Commercial Virtual Pilot - Exam

This is the Commercial Virtual Pilot exam. Passing score is 70%. The first fifteen questions are on general Flight Simulator flying that most pilots need to know. No study guide help is needed or required. The last twenty-five questions can be found at: Flight Simulator Navigation or Steve's Flight School both excellent pages for training and additional information. In addition, the Aeronautical Information Manual has additional information that will make your virtual piloting experience more realistic. 
 1.  The correct ICAO code for London-Heathrow is...



    a.  EGKK
    b.  ELHR
    c.  EGLL
    d.  KGLL



 2.  The correct ICAO code for St. Louis Int'l is ...



    a.  KTSL
    b.  ESTL
    c.  KTLS
    d.  KSTL



 3.  ICAO codes for VOR's are generally identified with ...



    a.  2 letters
    b.  3 letters
    c.  4 letters
    d.  5 letters




 4.  Peak performance of aircraft occur in ...



    a.  cold air
    b.  warm air
    c.  hot air
    d.  dry air




 5.  The aiming point (where you want to land) on an ILS approach is ...



    a.  Mid point of the runway
    b.  The designated touchdown zone
    c.  3000' beyond the threshold
    d.  green row of lights at the end of the runway




 6.  You are on RNWY 18L, and ATC directs you to takeoff and fly runway heading.  You should
     ...



    a.  turn left to a heading of 18 after take off
    b.  turn right to a heading of 18 after taking off
    c.  fly any heading within reason
    d.  maintain your same heading after take off




 7.  ATC instructs you to "report when established." This means you should contact ATC
     ...



    a.  when you are ready for take off
    b.  when you are ready to taxi
    c.  when you land
    d.  when you are lined up with the ILS




 8.  Class A airspace is restricted to ...



    a.  IFR flights only
    b.  VFR flights only
    c.  single-engine aircraft only
    d.  multi-engine aircraft only




 9.  The ICAO airport codes for all continental US airports start with ...



    a.  it varies from airport to airport
    b.  it makes no difference
    c.  U
    d.  K




10.  You are flying IFR form New York to Las Vegas.  Which is not a
      proper ICAO flight level for your flight?



    a.  FL310
    b.  FL330
    c.  FL350
    d.  FL390




11.  You are flying a twin-engine aircraft when your left engine fails.  With increased throttle
      your aircraft will pull ...



    a.  to the right
    b.  to the left
    c.  up
    d.  down




12.  A pilot’s most immediate concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming
      airborne on takeoff is ...



    a.  lowering flaps to full down
    b.  maintaining a safe airspeed
    c.  turning back to the runway
    d.  keeping the landing gear down




13.  You are flying IFR from San Diego to St Louis.  Which is not a valid flight level for your flight?

    a.  FL370
    b.  FL350
    c.  FL330
    d.  FL290


14.  You are being vectored to the ILS approach but not cleared for the approach. As you pass
     through the LOC, you should ...



    a.  turn outbound and make a procedure turn
    b.  continue on the assigned heading and query ATC
    c.  turn inbound and intercept the LOC
    d.  turn outbound and fly 5 minutes



15.  Altimeter setting at KSTL is 30.11”.  While climbing IFR through 18,000’ MSL into Class A
     airspace, set altimeter to ...

    a.  30.11”
    b.  last known setting
    c.  makes no difference
    d.  29.92”



16.  The proper time to tune your Nav receivers & ADF is while the aircraft is on the ground.

    a.  True
    b.  False



17.  Intersections are identified on both LA & HA enroute charts.

    a.  True
    b.  False



18.  One nautical mile is = to how many statute miles?

    a.  1.15
    b.  2.15
    c.  1.05
    d.  same



19.  In protocol terms, VFR [Visual Flight Rules] is 3 miles visibility and 1000’ ceiling.

    a.  True
    b.  False



20.  Before an IFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filled with ATC and it must be approved.

    a. True
    b. False



21.  All commercial airlines file IFR for every flight.

    a.  True
    b.  False



22.  Runway headings are always magnetic.

    a.  True
    b.  False



23.  Your heading is 083 degrees, turn right 30 degrees, the new heading  will be  ...

    a.  053 degrees
    b.  113 degrees
    c.  083 degrees
    d.  293 degrees



24.  A standard rate turn is 3 degrees per second. Make this turn for one minute,
     which should results in a turn of ...

    a.  360 degrees
    b.  180 degrees
    c.  90 degrees
    d.  270 degrees



25.  If a Jet aircraft is descending at 2000 feet per minute, how many minutes will it
     take to loose 20,000’?

    a.  20 min.
    b.  40 min.
    c.  10 min.
    d.  15 min.



26.  You are landing at KJFK on Rwy 31L. This puts you on a heading of ...

    a.  360 degrees
    b.  130 degrees
    c.  180 degrees
    d.  310 degrees



27.  At FL390, want to cross DECEE at 10,000’.  Feet to loose X 4 = distance from station
     to begin descent. Start at .

    a.  145 nm from DECEE
    b.  174 nm from DECEE
    c.  116 nm from DECEE
    d.  58 nm from DECEE



28.  Reception range of a high altitude VOR at FL180 – FL450 is ...

    a.  40 nm
    b.  130 nm
    c.  250 nm
    d.  325 nm



29.  On the ADF indicator the needle always points to the station.

    a.  True
    b.  False



30.  The standard glide slope path is how many degrees downhill to the approach end of the runway?

    a.  5 degrees
    b.  7 degrees
    c.  6 degrees
    d.  3 degrees



31.  The outer marker beacon  is 4 to 7 nm from the runway threshold.

    a.  True
    b.  False


32.  Standard rate of climb for the aircraft is 2000 feet per minute. How many minutes
     to climb 34,000 feet?

    a.  17 min.
    b.  37 min.
    c.  36 min
    d.  42 min.



33.  If the aircraft burns 2000 GPH, trip is 6 hours long, plus 2 hour reserve, how
     many gallons do you load?

    a.  12,000 gallons
    b.  16,000 gallons
    c.  24,000 gallons
    d.  32,000 gallons



34.  Distance is 2000 nm; speed is 400 Kts; how long is the trip?

    a.  10 hours
    b.  8 hours
    c.  7 hours
    d.  5 hours



35.  On a standard ILS Category I approach the DH and RVR would be?

    a.  200’ and 1200’
    b.  100’ and 1200’
    c.  400’ and 2400’
    d.  200’ and 2400’



36.  In the dual-needle Radio Magnetic Indicator, one needle can point to the NDB, the
     other to the VOR .

    a.  True
    b.  False



37.  On an instrument approach plate the letters MSA stand for “Minimum Safe Altitude”.

    a.  True
    b.  False



38.  An ILS system consists of two main transmitters;  Localizer  and  Glide-slope.

    a.  True
    b.  False



39.  Class A airspace in the US is from 18,000’ MSL up to and including FL600.

    a.  True
    b.  False



40.  Class B airspace in the US if from the surface to 10,000' MSL surrounding
     nation's busiest airports.

    a.  True
    b.  False

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